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UPSC 2025 Polity PYQ Solved

22 Polity questions from UPSC 2025 Prelims GS Paper 1 — solved with answers

22
Questions
91%
Trap Rate
Common Misconception
Top Trap
Q33easyPartial Truth
With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information : Organization — Some of its functions — It works under I. Directorate of Enforcement : Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 : Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence : Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 : Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management : Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders : Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (b)
Trap: Partial Truth
Row I is wrong - Directorate of Enforcement works under Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance (NOT Ministry of Home Affairs). It does enforce the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, so the function is right but the ministry is wrong. This partial correctness traps candidates into accepting the entire row.
Q41moderateOutdated Info
Consider the following countries : I. Austria II. Bulgaria III. Croatia IV. Serbia V. Sweden VI. North Macedonia How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?
(a) Only three
(b) Only four
(c) Only five
(d) All the six
Answer: (b)
Trap: Outdated Info
Sweden joined NATO in 2024, which candidates studying older materials may miss. Austria is neutral (not NATO). Serbia is not NATO. Bulgaria, Croatia, North Macedonia, and Sweden are NATO members. That makes 4. Candidates unaware of Sweden's recent accession may pick (a).
Q51easyPartial Truth
Consider the following statements : I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States. II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years. III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level. Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (d)
Trap: Partial Truth
I is wrong - states with population under 20 lakh need not have intermediate panchayats. II is wrong - age is 21, not 30. III is wrong - it's the GOVERNOR (not CM) who constitutes the State Finance Commission. All three have subtle errors. The negative framing ('not correct') adds another layer of confusion.
Q52easyPartial Truth
Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC : I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025. II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999. III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC. IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of 'tourism' is being led by India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) I only
Answer: (d)
Trap: Partial Truth
II is wrong - BIMSTEC was formed by the Bangkok Declaration (1997), not Dhaka Declaration. III is wrong - founding members were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand (BIST); Nepal joined later. IV is wrong - India leads other sectors, not tourism. Only I (7 members) is correct.
Q53easyCommon Misconception
Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of 'Gandhi Peace Prize'? I. The President of India II. The Prime Minister of India III. The Chief Justice of India IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) II and IV only
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I and III only
Answer: (c)
Trap: Common Misconception
The President of India is NOT on the jury. The jury consists of PM, CJI, LoP in Lok Sabha, and Speaker of Lok Sabha. Candidates may assume the President heads such a prestigious award committee, picking (b).
Q55easyPartial Truth
Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025 : I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024. II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a)
Trap: Partial Truth
Statement II is wrong - the US and UK did NOT sign the Paris AI declaration. They were notable holdouts. Candidates who assume major Western democracies would sign an AI declaration on inclusivity and sustainability may accept II and pick (c).
Q56easyCommon Misconception
Consider the following pairs : I. International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026 II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027 III. International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025 IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029 How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four
Answer: (d)
Trap: Common Misconception
Candidates may doubt one or more of these pairings, especially IV (Asteroid Awareness 2029) which sounds unusual. All four are genuine UN-designated years. The obscurity of some pairings may cause under-counting.
Q57easy
Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS : I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan. II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS. III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I only
Answer: (a)
Q58easyPartial Truth
Consider the following statements about Lokpal : I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India. II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson. III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be. IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) III only
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) None of the above statements is correct
Answer: (a)
Trap: Partial Truth
I is wrong - Lokpal applies to public servants posted outside India too. II is wrong - the Chairperson need not be CJI; it should be a person who is or has been CJI or a SC judge. IV is wrong - Lokpal CAN inquire against sitting PM (with safeguards). Only III (45 years age) is correct.
Q66moderateCommon Misconception
Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India : I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review. II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a)
Trap: Common Misconception
Statement II is the trap. The President exercises pardoning power on the ADVICE of the Council of Ministers (Article 74). He cannot act independently. Candidates who think pardoning is a discretionary power of the President may pick (c).
Q67moderateCommon Misconception
Consider the following statements : I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution. II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately. III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (c)
Trap: Common Misconception
Statement II is the trap. The Constitution does NOT require the Speaker to resign from their political party. While the UK convention exists, India's Constitution has no such provision. Many candidates confuse convention with constitutional requirement and pick (d).
Q68moderateCommon Misconception
Consider the following statements : I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final. II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (d)
Trap: Common Misconception
I is wrong - under the 10th Schedule, the SPEAKER (not President) decides disqualification questions. II is wrong - the 10th Schedule itself uses the term 'political party'. Candidates who think the President handles all disqualifications may pick (a).
Q69moderateAbsolute Qualifier
Consider the following statements : Statement I : In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories. Statement II : In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (d)
Trap: Absolute Qualifier
Statement I is wrong - State Governments DO have power to make rules for minor minerals under the MMDR Act. The Central Government notifies what constitutes minor minerals, but states regulate their extraction. Candidates who think all mineral regulation is centralized may accept I and pick (a).
Q81moderateCommon Misconception
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements : I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (c)
Trap: Common Misconception
Statement II is wrong - an Ordinance CANNOT abridge Fundamental Rights, just as a normal law cannot (Article 13). Ordinances have the same force as an Act of Parliament but are subject to the same constitutional limitations. Candidates may think ordinances have special power.
Q82easyPartial Truth
Consider the following pairs : State — Description I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (c)
Trap: Partial Truth
Candidates may doubt I (Itanagar is named after Ita Fort, and AP has Namdapha and Mouling National Parks). They may also doubt II (Nagaland was created by the 13th Constitutional Amendment Act and State of Nagaland Act). III is also correct. All three match but require specific knowledge.
Q83moderateCommon Misconception
With reference to India, consider the following : I. The Inter-State Council II. The National Security Council III. Zonal Councils How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (a)
Trap: Common Misconception
Only the Inter-State Council (Article 263) is a constitutional body. NSC was created by executive order. Zonal Councils were created by States Reorganisation Act 1956 (statutory, not constitutional). Candidates may think Zonal Councils are constitutional, picking (b).
Q84moderateCommon Misconception
Consider the following statements : I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion. II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a)
Trap: Common Misconception
Statement II is wrong. The President cannot directly reserve a state bill - it must be forwarded by the Governor first (Article 200-201). The Governor reserves the bill for Presidential consideration, not the President directly. Candidates may confuse the flow.
Q85moderateCommon Misconception
Consider the following pairs : Provision in the Constitution of India — Stated under I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : The Directive Principles of the State Policy II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture : The Fundamental Duties III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (c)
Trap: Common Misconception
Candidates may doubt III - prohibition of child labour in factories is Article 24 under Fundamental Rights, not DPSP. They may also confuse 'separation of judiciary from executive' as being under Fundamental Rights instead of DPSP (Article 50). All three are correctly placed.
Q86moderatePartial Truth
Consider the following statements : With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (d)
Trap: Partial Truth
Statement I is wrong - the State Government does NOT lose executive power; the Governor has special powers in scheduled areas but the state government continues to administer. Statement II is wrong - the Fifth Schedule gives special powers to the Governor, not the Union Government for takeover. Candidates who confuse 5th Schedule with emergency provisions may pick (b).
Q87easyDistractor Pairing
With reference to India, consider the following pairs : Organization — Union Ministry I. The National Automotive Board : Ministry of Commerce and Industry II. The Coir Board : Ministry of Heavy Industries III. The National Centre for Trade Information : Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (d)
Trap: Distractor Pairing
All three pairings are deliberately wrong. National Automotive Board is under Ministry of Heavy Industries (not Commerce). Coir Board is under Ministry of MSME (not Heavy Industries). National Centre for Trade Information is under Ministry of Commerce (not MSME). The swapped ministries create plausible-sounding but incorrect matches.
Q88easyPartial Truth
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India : I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule II. Extent of the executive power of a State III. Conditions of the Governor's office For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (a)
Trap: Partial Truth
Article 368 requires state ratification for amending the Seventh Schedule (I) and extent of executive power of state (II). Conditions of Governor's office (III) are NOT in the list requiring state ratification - this can be amended by special majority alone. Candidates may think all federal provisions need ratification.
Q89easy
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements : I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office. II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office. III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House. Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (d)