Q53easyPartial Truth
With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration
1. He/She shall not preside.
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
Trap: Partial Truth
Under Article 96, while a resolution for removal is under consideration, the Speaker shall not preside (correct, statement 1). However, the Speaker HAS the right to speak and participate in the proceedings (statement 2 is wrong). The Speaker is entitled to vote in the first instance on such resolution, not just a casting vote (statement 3 is wrong). Students may assume the Speaker is fully excluded from the process.
Q54moderatePartial Truth
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements :
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b)
Trap: Partial Truth
Statement 3 is the critical trap. A bill for which the President has notified intention for a joint sitting does NOT lapse on dissolution of Lok Sabha — this is a specific constitutional provision to preserve the joint sitting mechanism. Students who know statements 1 and 2 are correct might automatically include 3, thinking all pending bills lapse.
Q55easyCommon Misconception
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements :
1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (c)
Trap: Common Misconception
Statement 1 is the trap — prorogation IS done on the advice of the Council of Ministers (the President acts on ministerial advice for most executive actions under Article 74). Students may think prorogation is the President's discretionary power, confusing it with dissolution which has more nuance. Statement 2 and 3 are both correct.
Q58easyCommon Misconception
With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements :
1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.
3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Trap: Common Misconception
Students might doubt statement 1 (100% central funding) assuming it's a centrally sponsored scheme with state sharing. However, DILRMP was converted to a Central Sector Scheme with 100% central funding. Statement 3 about transliteration seems unusual but is a real initiative under the programme. Students may reject 3 as too good to be true.
Q59easyPartial Truth
With reference to the 'Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan', consider the following statements :
1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
Trap: Partial Truth
Statement 2 is tricky — while PMSMA does involve private doctors volunteering, the statement says 'private sector health care providers of certain specialities' which is slightly misleading or too specific. The scheme primarily involves OBGYNs volunteering on the 9th of every month. The broader claim about 'certain specialities' may make it seem more expansive than it is. Statement 1 accurately describes the scheme's core features.
Q61moderateCommon Misconception
Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam' :
1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (c)
Trap: Common Misconception
Statement 1 is the trap — the Act will come into effect only after delimitation based on the first Census conducted after the Act's commencement, NOT from the 18th Lok Sabha automatically. Many students assumed it would apply from the next general election. Statements 2 (15-year validity) and 3 (SC/ST women reservation within SC/ST quota) are correct.
Q63easy
A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to :
(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
(b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
(c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.
Answer: (c)
Q64moderateCommon Misconception
Consider the following statements :
1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Trap: Common Misconception
Statement 1 is wrong — under Article 342, it is the President of India (not the Governor) who specifies Scheduled Tribes for each state, and Parliament can modify the list. Students often confuse this with the Governor's role, possibly mixing it up with the initial first notification power. Statement 2 is correct — ST lists are state-specific.
Q65easyPartial Truth
With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements :
1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
Trap: Partial Truth
Statement 2 sounds correct because Article 113 says no demand for grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President. However, looking at the exact constitutional provision, the statement is essentially restating Article 113 correctly. But the official answer is (a), suggesting statement 2 may have a subtle error — possibly that the recommendation is for introducing the demand, not just making it. This is a tricky interpretation question.
Q71easy
Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over ?
(a) C. Rajagopalachari
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) T.T. Krishnamachari
(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Answer: (d)
Q76easy
As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of :
1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Q78moderateAbsolute Qualifier
Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament ?
1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: (c)
Trap: Absolute Qualifier
Statement 4 is the trap — Rajya Sabha's suggestions on a Money Bill are NOT binding on Lok Sabha. Lok Sabha MAY or MAY NOT accept them. The word 'have to be accepted' makes statement 4 incorrect. Students who know Rajya Sabha can suggest amendments might erroneously assume these must be accepted.
Q79easyCommon Misconception
Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces ?
Army | Airforce | Navy
1. Brigadier | Air Commodore | Commander
2. Major General | Air Vice Marshal | Vice Admiral
3. Major | Squadron Leader | Lieutenant Commander
4. Lieutenant Colonel | Group Captain | Captain
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 only
Answer: (d)
Trap: Common Misconception
Row 1: Brigadier = Air Commodore is correct, but the Navy equivalent is Commodore, NOT Commander. Row 2: Major General = Air Vice Marshal, but Navy equivalent is Rear Admiral, NOT Vice Admiral. Row 4: Lt Colonel = Group Captain is wrong — Lt Colonel equivalent in IAF is Wing Commander, not Group Captain (Group Captain = Colonel). Only Row 3 is fully correct.
Q80easyCommon Misconception
The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members ?
1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a)
Trap: Common Misconception
Statement 4 about the Home Minister being a member is the trap. The NEC is chaired by the DoNER Minister (not Home Minister). After the 2002 amendment, the council includes Governors, Chief Ministers, and three nominated members. Students might assume the Home Minister is involved given the security dimension of the Northeast.
Q91moderateCommon Misconception
How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023 ?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer: (d)
Trap: Common Misconception
Students often recall only the major delimitation exercises (1952, 1963, 2002) and count three commissions. However, four Delimitation Commissions have been constituted: 1952 (under Delimitation Commission Act 1952), 1963 (under 1962 Act), 1973 (under 1972 Act), and 2002 (under 2002 Act). The 1973 commission is often forgotten.
Q92moderateOutdated Info
The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages ?
1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a)
Trap: Outdated Info
Maithili was added by the 92nd Amendment (2003), NOT the 71st Amendment (1992). The 71st Amendment added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali. Students who know all four are in the Eighth Schedule but don't remember which amendment added which language may incorrectly include Maithili.
Q94moderatePartial Truth
Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India ?
1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Trap: Partial Truth
All three statements are correct but students may doubt any one. Part IXA (Municipalities, added by 74th Amendment), Part XVIII (Emergency Provisions), and Part XX (Amendment of the Constitution, Article 368). Students often confuse Part numbers — emergency is sometimes thought to be Part XVII or XIX. The exact numbering is the challenge.
Q95easy
Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India ?
(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
(c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.
Answer: (c)
Q96easy
Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy ?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 19
(d) Article 21
Answer: (d)
Q97moderateCommon Misconception
What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs ?
1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs
3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (d)
Trap: Common Misconception
Statement 2 is the crucial trap. The CDS does NOT exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs. This was a deliberate design choice — the three chiefs retain operational command of their services. The CDS provides strategic coordination and advice but does not command the forces. Students may assume CDS has command authority given the 'Chief' title.
Q98moderate
Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called :
(a) Operation Sankalp
(b) Operation Maitri
(c) Operation Sadbhavana
(d) Operation Madad
Answer: (c)
Q100easyCommon Misconception
Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct ?
1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Trap: Common Misconception
Statement 1 is the trap — the Ethics Committee was NOT initially an ad-hoc committee. It was constituted as a Standing Committee from its inception in the Lok Sabha (2000). Students may confuse it with the Privileges Committee or assume it evolved from an ad-hoc body. Statements 2 and 3 are correct — only MPs can file complaints, and sub-judice matters are excluded.