Skip to content
Early access — you're among the first to try PYQLabs. Share feedback

UPSC 2023 Polity PYQ Solved

19 Polity questions from UPSC 2023 Prelims GS Paper 1 — solved with answers

19
Questions
89%
Trap Rate
Partial Truth
Top Trap
Q11easy
In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean?
(a) The principle of natural justice
(b) The procedure established by law
(c) Fair application of law
(d) Equality before law
Answer: (a)
Q12moderateScope Confusion
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a)
Trap: Scope Confusion
The trap is choosing (b) instead of (a). Aspirants may think both are correct but unrelated. However, Statement-II (Prisons Act keeping control with Provincial Governments) is exactly why Statement-I is true (States manage prisons with own rules). The causal link is direct.
Q13moderatePartial Truth
Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?
(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.
Answer: (c)
Trap: Partial Truth
Options (a), (b), and (d) are all partial truths -- constitutions do these things too. But the CHIEF purpose is (c): defining and limiting government power (constitutionalism). Option (d) is a strong trap for aspirants who think in terms of Indian Directive Principles and social justice framework.
Q14moderateScope Confusion
In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
(a) 1st Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 86th Amendment
Answer: (x)
Trap: Scope Confusion
The correct answer is marked 'x' in the source (likely disputed/bonus). Both 1st Amendment and 42nd Amendment were enacted to overcome judicial interpretations. The 1st Amendment (1951) overcame Champakam Dorairajan and other cases. The 42nd Amendment (1976) curtailed judicial review of Fundamental Rights. The 44th Amendment actually restored rights. This ambiguity makes it a contested question.
Q15moderateCommon Misconception
Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3. The National Law Commission 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (a)
Trap: Common Misconception
The NHRC (option 2) is the biggest trap -- most aspirants believe it is a constitutional body, but it is statutory (created under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993). The NCBC became constitutional after the 102nd Amendment (Article 338B). Law Commission and NCDRC are also statutory/executive bodies.
Q16moderateAbsolute Qualifier
Consider the following statements: 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid. 2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. 3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent. How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (d)
Trap: Absolute Qualifier
Statement 1 is the main trap. Aspirants may logically assume that if an election is void, all acts become invalid. But Article 71(2) specifically says acts done before the date of the Supreme Court decision are not invalidated. Statement 2 sounds reasonable but the election cannot be postponed for this reason. Statement 3 -- there is no time limit prescribed.
Q17easyPartial Truth
With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. 2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations. 3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b)
Trap: Partial Truth
Statement 3 is the trap. While it's true there's no joint sitting for Money Bill, a joint sitting does NOT become 'necessary' for Finance Bill -- it is possible but not mandatory. However, the main distinction is that Finance Bill (Part A) is treated like Money Bill, while Finance Bill (Part B and others) can go through joint sitting. The nuance makes this tricky.
Q19moderatePartial Truth
With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements: 1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President. 2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block. 3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States. How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b)
Trap: Partial Truth
Statement 3 is the trap. The Governor (not Chief Minister) submits annual reports to the President (not Union Home Ministry) regarding Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule. Aspirants may assume Chief Ministers handle state-level reports to the Centre.
Q20moderateAbsolute Qualifier
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration. Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c)
Trap: Absolute Qualifier
Statement-II is the trap. Article 335 mentions 'efficiency of administration' but does NOT define the term. Aspirants who know Article 335 exists may assume it provides a definition, when it actually just states that claims of SCs/STs shall be considered consistently with maintenance of efficiency. The lack of definition has been a matter of judicial interpretation.
Q50moderateAbsolute Qualifier
With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: 1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. 2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security. 3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States. How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c)
Trap: Absolute Qualifier
Statement 1 could be a trap -- Home Guards are raised under State legislation, not Central Government. However, there IS a central framework/guidelines. The official answer (c) marks all three as correct, which means the question treats the Home Guards Act as a central provision. Aspirants who know Home Guards are state-managed may incorrectly eliminate Statement 1.
Q51easyCommon Misconception
With reference to India, consider the following pairs: Action : The Act under which it is covered 1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms : The Official Secrets Act, 1923 2. Knowingly misleading of otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties : The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others : The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b)
Trap: Common Misconception
Pair 2 is the trap. Knowingly misleading or interfering with police/military officers is covered under the Official Secrets Act or IPC, NOT the Indian Evidence Act (which deals with rules of evidence in courts). Aspirants may confuse 'evidence' with 'interference' or vaguely associate legal proceedings with the Evidence Act.
Q63easy
Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002: Statement-I: One of the standard sizes the National Flag of India of 600 mm x 400 mm. Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a)
Q64moderateCommon Misconception
Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d)
Trap: Common Misconception
The official answer (d) suggests Statement-I is incorrect. However, Constitution Day IS celebrated on 26th November to promote constitutional values -- this is widely known. Statement-II is incorrect because the Drafting Committee was set up on 29th August 1947, NOT 26th November 1949. On 26th November 1949, the Constitution was ADOPTED. The official answer seems to contain an error.
Q69moderateAbsolute Qualifier
Consider the following statements: 1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the 'Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)'. 2. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries. 3. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments. How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (a)
Trap: Absolute Qualifier
Statement 1 uses 'all countries' -- but the US, Hungary, and others did NOT adopt the GCM. Statement 2 is wrong because GCM is non-binding. Statement 3 is wrong because GCM addresses international migration, NOT internal migration/IDPs. The trap is Statement 1's absoluteness and Statement 3's plausible-sounding extension to internal migration.
Q80moderatePartial Truth
Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: 1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. 2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. 3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. 4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (a)
Trap: Partial Truth
Statement 1 is a trap -- JSY is under the National Health Mission (Central Government), not State Health Departments. Statement 4 is about sick infants, which is covered under other schemes (JSSK, not JSY). Aspirants may think all maternal health schemes are the same and mark multiple as correct.
Q81easySimilar Sounding
Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: 1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women. 2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child-birth. 3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. 4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b)
Trap: Similar Sounding
Statement 1 is the main trap. Anaemia Mukt Bharat provides prophylactic IRON and FOLIC ACID supplementation, not calcium. Calcium supplementation is different from iron supplementation. Aspirants may confuse micronutrient supplementation types. Statement 4 mentions fluorosis, which is NOT a focus of the anaemia strategy.
Q94moderateScope Confusion
Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care. Statement-II: Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (b)
Trap: Scope Confusion
The trap is choosing (a). Both statements are correct, but decentralization (Statement-II) is not the REASON why healthcare focuses on curative care (Statement-I). The curative care focus is due to historical priorities, infrastructure patterns, and funding allocation -- not because states manage health. Aspirants may incorrectly link decentralization to the curative care emphasis.
Q96easyPartial Truth
Consider the following statements: 1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances. 2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention. 3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence. How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c)
Trap: Partial Truth
Statement 3 is the main trap. Under POTA 2002, confessions before police officers (of SP rank and above) COULD be used as evidence -- this was a controversial provision. The statement says 'cannot be used,' which is incorrect. However, POTA was repealed in 2004. The official answer marking all three as correct is debatable.
Q99easyPartial Truth
Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India: 1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College. 2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State. 3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala. 4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh. How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (c)
Trap: Partial Truth
Statement 1 is the trap. Nominated members of Parliament and State Assemblies are NOT part of the Electoral College for the President -- only elected members are included. Aspirants often forget this crucial distinction. Statement 2 is also tricky -- higher seats don't mean higher vote value; it depends on the population-to-seats ratio.