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UPSC 2021 Polity PYQ Solved

21 Polity questions from UPSC 2021 Prelims GS Paper 1 — solved with answers

21
Questions
86%
Trap Rate
Absolute Qualifier
Top Trap
Q31moderatePartial Truth
Consider the following statements : 1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government. 2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest. 3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act. Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
Trap: Partial Truth
Statement 2 is the trap. The power to issue directions to RBI comes from the RBI Act (Section 7), NOT from the Constitution. Students often assume that government's power over RBI is constitutionally mandated, but RBI is a statutory body created by an Act of Parliament, not a constitutional body.
Q32easyAbsolute Qualifier
With reference to casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements : 1. All casual workers are entitled for Employees Provident Fund coverage. 2. All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment. 3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account. Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Trap: Absolute Qualifier
The word 'All' in statements 1 and 2 might make students hesitate, thinking there must be exceptions. Under the new labour codes (Social Security Code 2020, Code on Wages 2019), the coverage has been expanded significantly to include casual workers. The absoluteness of 'all' is meant to create doubt.
Q51easy
Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates
(a) the Right to Equality
(b) the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) the Right to Freedom
(d) the Concept of Welfare
Answer: (b)
Q52moderateCommon Misconception
What is the position of the Right to Property in India?
(a) Legal right available to citizens only
(b) Legal right available to any person
(c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only
(d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right
Answer: (b)
Trap: Common Misconception
Option (a) is the main trap. Students know Right to Property was removed as a Fundamental Right by the 44th Amendment (1978) and made a legal right under Article 300A. But they often think it's available only to citizens. Article 300A says 'no PERSON shall be deprived of property' - it applies to any person, not just citizens.
Q53moderateOutdated Info
What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?
(a) A Democratic Republic
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
Answer: (b)
Trap: Outdated Info
Option (d) is the most common trap. Students memorize the current Preamble which includes 'Socialist' and 'Secular' (added by 42nd Amendment in 1976). The question asks about 26th January 1950 - the ORIGINAL Preamble only had 'Sovereign Democratic Republic'. Many students pick (d) reflexively.
Q54easy
Constitutional government means
(a) a representative government of a nation with federal structure
(b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
(c) a government whose Head enjoys real powers
(d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution
Answer: (d)
Q56easyCommon Misconception
Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards : 1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. 2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. 3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Trap: Common Misconception
This is a NEGATIVE question ('not correct') which itself is a trap for hasty readers. Statement 1: SC ruled these are not 'titles' under Article 18. Statement 2: Padma Awards were suspended twice (1977-79 and 1993-97). Statement 3: Bharat Ratna is limited to 3 per year, not 5. All three are incorrect.
Q61easyAbsolute Qualifier
Consider the following statements : 1. 'Right to the City' is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard. 2. 'Right to the City' gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city. 3. 'Right to the City' means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies in the city. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
Trap: Absolute Qualifier
Statement 3 is the trap. It uses absolute language - 'cannot deny ANY public service or facility to unauthorized colonies.' The Right to the City concept promotes inclusive access but doesn't grant blanket immunity to unauthorized colonies from all regulations. Students sympathetic to the concept might accept statement 3.
Q62moderatePartial Truth
With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail. 2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Trap: Partial Truth
Statement 1 is the trap. The first part is correct (judicial custody = custody of magistrate), but the second part is wrong - in judicial custody, the accused is kept in JAIL, not police station. Police custody = police station. This half-right, half-wrong structure is designed to confuse.
Q63moderateAbsolute Qualifier
With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right. 2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Trap: Absolute Qualifier
Statement 1 is the trap. It makes parole sound like an absolute right once a 'sufficient case' is made. In Indian law, parole is NOT a matter of right - it's a privilege/concession granted by the state. Even with a sufficient case, the authority has discretion. The word 'cannot be denied' makes it absolute.
Q64easyCommon Misconception
At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Answer: (d)
Trap: Common Misconception
Option (a) Ministry of Environment is the biggest trap. Since the Act deals with 'Forest Rights' and 'Forest Dwellers', students naturally associate it with the Environment Ministry. But the Act is primarily about tribal rights, and the Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency. The forest aspect misleads.
Q65moderateDistractor Pairing
A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 28
(c) Article 32
(d) Article 44
Answer: (a)
Trap: Distractor Pairing
Option (c) Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies) might attract students who think of it as the remedy against arbitrary government action. But Article 32 is the remedy mechanism, not the substantive right being violated. Article 14 (equality before law) prohibits arbitrary and unguided discretion.
Q66moderateDistractor Pairing
Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?
(a) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.
(b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
(c) The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.
(d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.
Answer: (a)
Trap: Distractor Pairing
Option (b) seems federal because constituent units sending representatives to the Union Legislature (like Rajya Sabha) appears to be a federal feature. But this exists in unitary states too. Independent judiciary as arbiter between Centre and States is THE essential feature of federalism (umpire of the constitution).
Q67moderatePartial Truth
Which one of the following best defines the term 'State'?
(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government
(b) A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance
(c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government
(d) A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary
Answer: (a)
Trap: Partial Truth
Option (b) adds extraneous elements like 'natural rights' and 'means of sustenance' which are welfare functions, not defining characteristics. Option (c) confuses 'State' with 'Nation' (culture, tradition). Option (d) describes a specific form of government (parliamentary), not a State in general. Each wrong option has valid elements mixed with errors.
Q68moderateCommon Misconception
With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements : 1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India. 2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Trap: Common Misconception
Statement 2 is the contentious one. Students often think only the Supreme Court has review power (Article 137). But High Courts also have review power under Article 226 read with relevant rules. Many students pick (a) only, not realizing HCs can review their own judgments.
Q69moderateAbsolute Qualifier
With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile. 2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State. 3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
Trap: Absolute Qualifier
Statement 3 uses 'under any circumstances' which is too absolute. The Citizenship Act allows deprivation of citizenship acquired by registration or naturalization in certain cases (fraud, disloyalty, etc.). Statement 2 is wrong because India doesn't restrict Head of State to citizens by birth (unlike the US for President).
Q70moderateDistractor Pairing
Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?
(a) A committed judiciary
(b) Centralization of powers
(c) Elected government
(d) Separation of powers
Answer: (d)
Trap: Distractor Pairing
Option (a) 'committed judiciary' is the main trap. An independent judiciary is important, but a 'committed' judiciary (which implies alignment with a cause) could actually undermine liberty. The word 'committed' is deliberately used. Separation of powers prevents concentration of authority, which is the structural safeguard of liberty in liberal democratic theory (Montesquieu).
Q97moderateAbsolute Qualifier
We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model? 1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited. 2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Trap: Absolute Qualifier
Statement 2 might create doubt because not ALL constitutionality matters go to the Constitution Bench directly - sometimes they start at regular benches and are referred. But the statement is broadly correct that constitutional amendment validity questions are referred to the Constitution Bench (5+ judges). Students might overthink the procedural details.
Q98easyPartial Truth
With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements : 1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it. 2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister's charge. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Trap: Partial Truth
Students might doubt statement 1 because N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar is less well-known in the context of administrative reforms (more known for his role in the Constituent Assembly and J&K affairs). The committee recommendation is obscure but correct. Statement 2 is well-documented. The obscurity of statement 1 is the trap.
Q99easy
'Right to Privacy' is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 29
Answer: (c)
Q100moderateOutdated Info
Consider the following statements : 1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies. 2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. 3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Trap: Outdated Info
Statement 1 is the key trap. Before 1996, candidates could contest from any number of constituencies. After the RPA amendment in 1996, the limit was set to TWO constituencies maximum. So currently, contesting from THREE constituencies IS restricted by law. Students who don't know the 1996 amendment will think statement 1 is correct.